I've been reading all of the posts here (sometimes several times), and there seems to be a lot of confusion. I am definitely very confused. Let's start with the first trade. DW writes:
"For the Long butterfly trade, Augen sets the following conditions.
Entry Day: Thursday, when new weeklies enter the market. If a market moving event is expected on Friday (the next day), such as a jobs report, then wait until it's over before entering the trade.
Entry Time: Thursday by 10:00"
I presume this is a debit trade placed on weeklies that expire the following Friday (8 days). Let's use yesterday's SPY as an example (price was 141.02 at 10am). We could place one of the two following trades:
Buy 1 contract of 140 put
Sell 2 contracts of 141 put
Buy 1 contract of 142 put
or
Buy 1 contract of 139 put
Sell 2 contracts of 141 put
Buy 1 contract of 143 put
I'm not sure which of the above trades is better. The latter is a four-point spread mentioned by Kim (is this right Kim?).
DW adds:
"Trade criteria: ATM (or close to it) butterfly. Highly liquid stock, well, such as AAPL or GOOG.
Exit: He suggests, exiting by Friday close, however, the position could be held until Tuesday (morning?). After which the rapid effects of time decay will begin to take hold of the trade."
These two statements are the source of most of the confusion. We don't want the stock to move, so it doesn't make sense to use AAPL and GOOG. Why not a non-volatile stock like JNJ or MSFT or an index?
Also, on which Friday should the trade be closed? In one day or 8 days? Since the trade benefits from time decay, then shouldn't the trade be held beyond Tuesday, when "the rapid effects of time decay ... begin to take hold of the trade"?
Any help clearing things up would be greatly appreciated.