Edwin

Thanks, I forgot about this: https://twitter.com/elonmusk/status/582581865682350080 Major new Tesla product line -- not a car -- will be unveiled at our Hawthorne Design Studio on Thurs 8pm, April 30

TSLA reports on Wednesday, May 6 AC (UNCONFIRMED). The May Wk2/May calendars are trading between .7-.9. Is anyone looking to get in early, or is it too early to pull the trigger hoping that earnings may get pushed back a week?

Thanks

Does large call buying directly affect the price of the underlying immediately? Or is that typically an indirect relationship of traders seeing the call buying and then buying shares?

Thanks for the comment. I guess my question is how does the price of an underlying change if there aren't many buyers or sellers of that particular underlying, but there's action in the surrounding index, futures, or options trading for the index and futures. What happens if large institutions are selling the stocks in the index but there are large buyers of the futures and ETFs of the index that those stocks are in? I guess another example would be stocks flowing out of individual stocks and into ETFs.

I'm trying to wrap my head around how pricing is affected between index futures, the ETF that is supposed to represent the Index, the Index, the stocks in the Index, and all of the options trading that occurs between all four. For example, if we look at the ES futures, ES Futures options, SPX Options, shares of SPY, options for SPY, and the shares and options for all the stocks in the S&P 500, how is there a correlation in how price moves? If there's a huge SPX put buyer, how is that going to directly affect the market and how pricing and trading works on everything associated with it? Then if there's a huge call SPY call buyer, how does that balance out everything else that is going on? How does a large option trade affect the price of the underlying? If there's a huge buyer of calls or puts in a stock or ETF, how does that directly affect the underlying price of the stock or ETF? I would think that pricing of the stock or ETF would be more directly affected by the big institutions that are trading shares of the stock or ETF, and not so much by the options trading. I would think that the option shouldn't affect the price of the underlying that much until the option buyer exercises the option to buy or sell the shares of the underlying. Hopefully my question makes sense, and someone has some input to make sense of what I'm asking. Thanks